A 36-year-old man presents to his physician complaining of right
He states that the swelling has been present for 1 week. He
initially noticed the swelling shortly after moving furniture for his
new living room.
He denies any nausea, vomiting, change in bowel habits,
abdominal pain, or urinary tract symptoms. He has no other significant
surgical history. On examination, he has an enlarged right
hemi-scrotum with a mass that appears to be originating at the level of the
external inguinal ring. With the patient completely relaxed, the
physician is able to reduce the mass by pushing it back through the external
inguinal ring. With the mass reduced, the physician instructs the
patient to perform a Valsalva maneuver, upon which a protrusion is felt at the
external inguinal ring. Once the mass is reduced, the testicle
appears normal in size and consistency.
Question 3 of 4
If a segment of terminal ileum becomes strangulated as a consequence of his
condition, it may become infarcted and necrotic due to
occlusion of a branch of which of the following vessels?
/ A. Celiac trunk
/ B. Inferior mesenteric artery
/ C. Middle colic artery
/ D. Right colic artery
/ E. Superior mesenteric artery
Question 4 of 4
Which of the following pathological processes might cause the patient’s
underlying condition to occur in an infant?
/ A. Defect in the floor of the inguinal canal
/ B. Defect in the internal inguinal ring
/ C. Defect in the linea semilunaris
/ D. Patent processus vaginalis
/ E. Persistent lumen of the tunica vaginalis